Which two options are reasons for TCP starvation? (Choose two.)
A.
The use of tail drop
B.
The use of WRED
C.
Mixing TCP and UDP traffic in the same traffic class
D.
The use of TCP congestion control
Which two options are reasons for TCP starvation?
Which two options are reasons for TCP starvation? (Choose two.)
AC, not CD
It is C and D. UDP streams do not have any flow control. By sharing UDP and TCP streams in the same traffic class, the UDP stream can starve the TCP stream. This happens because the TCP stream will continue to adjust it’s window size lower based whereas the UDP stream will consume as much of the available bandwidth as possible. It’s recommended to split your UDP and TCP guaranteed bandwidth into separate classes.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/WAN_and_MAN/QoS_SRND/QoS-SRND-Book/VPNQoS.html
Okay, you’ve explained C, what about D?
I believe it’s AC.
…although this is the usual unclear crap we are used to from Cisco exams.
agree
agree with Ranger99, A and C are correct
New 400-101 Exam Questions and Answers Updated Recently:
NEW QUESTION 865
Which IPv6 tunneling mechanism requires a service provider to use one of its own native IPv6 blocks to guarantee that its IPv6 hosts will be reachable?
A. 6rd tunneling
B. automatic 6to4 tunneling
C. NAT-PT tunneling
D. ISATAP tunneling
E. manual ipv6ip tunneling
F. automatic 4to6 tunneling
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 866
……
NEW QUESTION 867
Which two discovery mechanism does LDP support? (Choose two.)
A. strict
B. extended
C. loose
D. targeted
E. basic
Answer: BE
NEW QUESTION 868
On a network using RIPng, the prefix field of a routing table entry has a value of 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0. What does this value signify?
A. The next hop address is unknown.
B. The next hop address is a site-local address.
C. The neighboring router has IPv6 ND disabled.
D. The next hop address must be the originator of the route advertisement.
E. The associated route follows a default route out of the network.
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION 869
Which AS_PATH attribute can you use to prevent loops when implementing BGP confederations?
A. AS_CONFED_SET
B. AS_SEQUENCE
C. AS_CONFED_SEQUENCE
D. AS_SET
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 870
Which two statements about OSPF are true? (Choose two.)
A. External type 2 routes are preferred over interarea routes.
B. Intra-area routes are preferred over interarea routes.
C. External type 1 routes are preferred over external type 2 routes.
D. External type 1 routes are preferred over intra-area routes.
E. External type 2 routes are preferred over external type 1 routes.
Answer: BC
NEW QUESTION 871
Which two statements about the OSPF two-way neighbor state are true? (Choose two.)
A. Each neighbor receives its own router ID in a hello packet from the other neighbor.
B. Each neighbor receives a hello message from the other neighbor.
C. It is valid only on NBMA networks.
D. It is valid only on point-to-point networks.
E. Each neighbor receives an acknowledgement of its own hello packet from the other neighbor.
F. Each neighbor receives the router ID of the other neighbor in a hello packet from the other neighbor.
Answer: AE
NEW QUESTION 872
……
NEW QUESTION 874
Which two statements about device access control are true? (Choose two.)
A. The AUX port is displayed as type tty in the output of the show line command.
B. VTY lines are associated with physical interfaces on a network device.
C. MPP restricts device-management access to interfaces that are configured under the control plane host configuration.
D. The enable password command sets an MD5 one-way encrypted password.
E. The console port supports hardware flow control
Answer: CE
NEW QUESTION 875
In the DiffServ model, which class represents the highest priority with the lowest drop probability? (*)
A. AF13
B. AF43
C. AF11
D. AF41
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 876
……
NEW QUESTION 879
Which two methods can you use to limit the range for EIGRP queries? (Choose two.)
A. Use an access list to deny the multicast address 224.0.0.1 outbound from select EIGRP neighbor and permit everything else.
B. Configure route tagging for all EIGRP routes.
C. Summarize routes at the boundary routers of the EIGRP domain.
D. Configure unicast EIGRP on all routers in the EIGRP domain.
E. Configure stub routers in the EIGRP domain.
F. Use an access list to deny the multicast address 224.0.0.10 outbound from select EIGRP neighbors and permit everything else.
Answer: CE
NEW QUESTION 880
Which two best practices does Cisco recommend to migrate a network from PVST+ to MST? (Choose two.)
A. Start the migration at the edge nodes and work toward the root bridge.
B. Before starting the transition, configure one of the edge nodes with a lower priority so that it becomes the root bridge after the transition.
C. Before starting the transition, ensure that at least two nodes act as the root bridge for all VLANs in the network.
D. Start the migration at the root bridge and work toward the edge nodes.
E. Before starting the transition, configure one of the edge nodes with a higher priority so that it becomes the root bridge after the transition.
F. Before starting the transition, ensure that one node is the root bridge for all VLANs in the network.
Answer: AF
NEW QUESTION 881
……
NEW QUESTION 883
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about this egress queue are true? (Choose two.)
image url: http://examgod.com/plimages/fea32f1f4acf_D50F/8831_thumb3_thumb.jpg
A. The queue 3 buffer is allocated 20 percent, its drop threshold is 100 percent, and it is guaranteed 400 percent of memory.
B. The queue 1 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 25 percent, and it is guaranteed 100 percent of memory.
C. The queue 1 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 100 percent, and it is guaranteed 150 percent of memory.
D. The queue 2 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 200 percent, and it can use at maximum 400 percent of memory.
E. The queue 3 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 100 percent, and it can use at maximum 400 percent of memory.
Answer: BD
NEW QUESTION 884
Which two statements about the function of PIM designated router are true? (Choose two.)
A. It registers directly connected source to the PIM rendezvous point.
B. It sends PIM asserts on the interface of the outgoing interface list.
C. It sends PIM Join/Prune messages for directly connected receivers.
D. It forwards multicast traffic from the source into the PIM network.
E. It sends IGMP queries.
Answer: AC
NEW QUESTION 885
Refer to exhibit. The router is unreachable using telnet. Which option is solution?
image url: http://examgod.com/plimages/fea32f1f4acf_D50F/8851_thumb3_thumb.jpg
A. Use an extended access list instead of standard access list.
B. The transport output telnet command must be added.
C. The VRF configuration must be completed.
D. The “vrf-also” keyword must be added to the access-class configuration.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 886
……
P.S. These New 400-101 Exam Questions Were Updated By PassLeader, You Can Get The Newest 400-101 Dumps In PDF And VCE From — http://www.passleader.com/400-101.html (889q)
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New 400-101 Exam Questions and Answers Updated Recently (3/May/2016):
NEW QUESTION 1
In which order of magnitude (time) is delay/latency measured when you use wide metrics in EIGRP?
A. tens of microseconds
B. picoseconds
C. mamoseconds
D. microseconds
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 2
Which statement about the BGP synchronization rule is true?
A. A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its iBGP learned routes to its iBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through an IGP.
B. A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its eBGP learned routes to its iBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through an IGP.
C. A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its eBGP learned routes to its eBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through an IGP.
D. A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its iBGP learned routes to its eBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through an IGP.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 3
Which tunnel type can be used with encryption to provide security for IPv6 over IPv4?
A. 6RD
B. 6to4
C. ISATAP
D. IPv4-compatible
E. GRE
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION 4
Which QoS mechanism is used to implement CoPP?
A. RSVP
B. rate limiting
C. FIFO
D. MQC
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 5
Which two statements about the spanning-tree timers in a switched network are true? (Choose two)
A. After receiving a BPDU from the root bridge, a non-root bridge waits for the hello interval before forwarding it out.
B. The root bridge sends out a TCN every max-age interval.
C. The root bridge sends out a configuration BPDU every hello interval.
D. The default hello time is two seconds.
Answer: CD
NEW QUESTION 6
Which two statements about Cisco IOS XE are true? (Choose two)
A. Separate images are required for platform-dependent code.
B. Its functions run as multiple separate processes in the OS.
C. It uses a service blade outside Cisco IOS XE to integrate and run applications.
D. It is deployed in a Linux-based environment.
E. The FED feature provides separation between the control plane and the data plane.
Answer: BD
NEW QUESTION 7
Which two factors can reduce NBAR2 performance? (Choose two)
A. queuing
B. multiple NBAR2-enabled interfaces
C. slow link speeds
D. stateful protocol matches
E. short-duration flows
Answer: DE
NEW QUESTION 8
Which encryption algorithm is enabled by the Cisco IOS command service password-encryption?
A. MD5
B. Cisco Type-5
C. Cisco AES
D. Cisco Type-7
E. TKIP
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 9
Which two options are requirements for AToM support? (Choose two)
A. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disabled.
B. MPLS must be configured with an LSP in the SP core.
C. MPLS must be enabled between the PE and CE routers.
D. The PE routers must be able to communicate with each other over IP.
E. IP routing must be configured between the PE and CE routers.
Answer: BD
NEW QUESTION 10
Which two statements best describes the difference between active mode monitoring and passive mode monitoring? (Choose two)
A. Active mode monitoring is the act of Cisco PfR gathering information on user packets assembled into flows by NetFlow.
B. Active mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes for obtaining performance characteristics of the current exit WAN link.
C. Passive mode monitoring uses IP SLA to generate probes for the purpose of obtaining information regarding the characteristics of the WAN links.
D. Passive mode monitoring uses NetFlow for obtaining performance characteristics of the exit WAN links.
Answer: BD
NEW QUESTION 11
……
P.S. These New 400-101 Exam Questions Were Just Updated From The Real 400-101 Exam, You Can Get The Newest 400-101 Dumps In PDF And VCE From — http://www.passleader.com/400-101.html (986q)
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BTW, NEW 400-101 PDF dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpfnRCUEFYcEhWZUw3OGNQY2FUSkptUXBrZDVzeE8zdkJQUERtOUFINDBFQW8
New 400-101 Exam Questions and Answers Updated Recently (3/May/2016):
NEW QUESTION 1
In which order of magnitude (time) is delay/latency measured when you use wide metrics in EIGRP?
A. tens of microseconds
B. picoseconds
C. mamoseconds
D. microseconds
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 2
Which statement about the BGP synchronization rule is true?
A. A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its iBGP learned routes to its iBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through an IGP.
B. A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its eBGP learned routes to its iBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through an IGP.
C. A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its eBGP learned routes to its eBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through an IGP.
D. A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its iBGP learned routes to its eBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through an IGP.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 3
Which tunnel type can be used with encryption to provide security for IPv6 over IPv4?
A. 6RD
B. 6to4
C. ISATAP
D. IPv4-compatible
E. GRE
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION 4
Which QoS mechanism is used to implement CoPP?
A. RSVP
B. rate limiting
C. FIFO
D. MQC
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 5
Which two statements about the spanning-tree timers in a switched network are true? (Choose two)
A. After receiving a BPDU from the root bridge, a non-root bridge waits for the hello interval before forwarding it out.
B. The root bridge sends out a TCN every max-age interval.
C. The root bridge sends out a configuration BPDU every hello interval.
D. The default hello time is two seconds.
Answer: CD
NEW QUESTION 6
Which two statements about Cisco IOS XE are true? (Choose two)
A. Separate images are required for platform-dependent code.
B. Its functions run as multiple separate processes in the OS.
C. It uses a service blade outside Cisco IOS XE to integrate and run applications.
D. It is deployed in a Linux-based environment.
E. The FED feature provides separation between the control plane and the data plane.
Answer: BD
NEW QUESTION 7
Which two factors can reduce NBAR2 performance? (Choose two)
A. queuing
B. multiple NBAR2-enabled interfaces
C. slow link speeds
D. stateful protocol matches
E. short-duration flows
Answer: DE
NEW QUESTION 8
Which encryption algorithm is enabled by the Cisco IOS command service password-encryption?
A. MD5
B. Cisco Type-5
C. Cisco AES
D. Cisco Type-7
E. TKIP
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 9
Which two options are requirements for AToM support? (Choose two)
A. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disabled.
B. MPLS must be configured with an LSP in the SP core.
C. MPLS must be enabled between the PE and CE routers.
D. The PE routers must be able to communicate with each other over IP.
E. IP routing must be configured between the PE and CE routers.
Answer: BD
NEW QUESTION 10
Which two statements best describes the difference between active mode monitoring and passive mode monitoring? (Choose two)
A. Active mode monitoring is the act of Cisco PfR gathering information on user packets assembled into flows by NetFlow.
B. Active mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes for obtaining performance characteristics of the current exit WAN link.
C. Passive mode monitoring uses IP SLA to generate probes for the purpose of obtaining information regarding the characteristics of the WAN links.
D. Passive mode monitoring uses NetFlow for obtaining performance characteristics of the exit WAN links.
Answer: BD
NEW QUESTION 11
……
P.S. These New 400-101 Exam Questions Were Just Updated From The Real 400-101 Exam, You Can Get The Newest 400-101 Dumps In PDF And VCE From — http://www.passleader.com/400-101.html (986q)
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BTW, NEW 400-101 PDF dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B-ob6L_QjGLpfnRCUEFYcEhWZUw3OGNQY2FUSkptUXBrZDVzeE8zdkJQUERtOUFINDBFQW8
New 400-101 Exam Questions and Answers Updated Recently (3/May/2016):
NEW QUESTION 1
In which order of magnitude (time) is delay/latency measured when you use wide metrics in EIGRP?
A. tens of microseconds
B. picoseconds
C. mamoseconds
D. microseconds
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 2
Which statement about the BGP synchronization rule is true?
A. A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its iBGP learned routes to its iBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through an IGP.
B. A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its eBGP learned routes to its iBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through an IGP.
C. A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its eBGP learned routes to its eBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through an IGP.
D. A BGP router with synchronization enabled does not advertise its iBGP learned routes to its eBGP peers unless it has learned or verified this route on its routing table through an IGP.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 3
Which tunnel type can be used with encryption to provide security for IPv6 over IPv4?
A. 6RD
B. 6to4
C. ISATAP
D. IPv4-compatible
E. GRE
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION 4
Which QoS mechanism is used to implement CoPP?
A. RSVP
B. rate limiting
C. FIFO
D. MQC
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 5
Which two statements about the spanning-tree timers in a switched network are true? (Choose two)
A. After receiving a BPDU from the root bridge, a non-root bridge waits for the hello interval before forwarding it out.
B. The root bridge sends out a TCN every max-age interval.
C. The root bridge sends out a configuration BPDU every hello interval.
D. The default hello time is two seconds.
Answer: CD
NEW QUESTION 6
Which two statements about Cisco IOS XE are true? (Choose two)
A. Separate images are required for platform-dependent code.
B. Its functions run as multiple separate processes in the OS.
C. It uses a service blade outside Cisco IOS XE to integrate and run applications.
D. It is deployed in a Linux-based environment.
E. The FED feature provides separation between the control plane and the data plane.
Answer: BD
NEW QUESTION 7
Which two factors can reduce NBAR2 performance? (Choose two)
A. queuing
B. multiple NBAR2-enabled interfaces
C. slow link speeds
D. stateful protocol matches
E. short-duration flows
Answer: DE
NEW QUESTION 8
Which encryption algorithm is enabled by the Cisco IOS command service password-encryption?
A. MD5
B. Cisco Type-5
C. Cisco AES
D. Cisco Type-7
E. TKIP
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 9
Which two options are requirements for AToM support? (Choose two)
A. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disabled.
B. MPLS must be configured with an LSP in the SP core.
C. MPLS must be enabled between the PE and CE routers.
D. The PE routers must be able to communicate with each other over IP.
E. IP routing must be configured between the PE and CE routers.
Answer: BD
NEW QUESTION 10
Which two statements best describes the difference between active mode monitoring and passive mode monitoring? (Choose two)
A. Active mode monitoring is the act of Cisco PfR gathering information on user packets assembled into flows by NetFlow.
B. Active mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes for obtaining performance characteristics of the current exit WAN link.
C. Passive mode monitoring uses IP SLA to generate probes for the purpose of obtaining information regarding the characteristics of the WAN links.
D. Passive mode monitoring uses NetFlow for obtaining performance characteristics of the exit WAN links.
Answer: BD
NEW QUESTION 11
……
P.S. These New 400-101 Exam Questions Were Just Updated From The Real 400-101 Exam, You Can Get The Newest 400-101 Dumps In PDF And VCE From — http://j.mp/valid-400-101-dumps-vce-pdf (986q)
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New 400-101 Exam Questions and Answers Updated Recently (8/June/2016):
NEW QUESTION 988
Which three service offer VLAN transparency for WAN Ethernet services? (Choose three)
A. ERMS
B. EPL
C. ERS
D. MPLS
E. EMS
F. EWS
Answer: ABC
NEW QUESTION 989
Which two values are required to implement an EIGRP named configurations? (Choose two)
A. address-family
B. process-id
C. subnet-mask
D. virtual-instance-name
E. router-id
Answer: AB
NEW QUESTION 990
What are the two EEM event subscribers? (Choose two)
A. CLI
B. script
C. applet
D. none
E. syslog
Answer: BC
NEW QUESTION 991
How is a targeted LDP session different from a standard LDP session?
A. Targeted LDP is used only for neighbors on different segments.
B. Targeted LDP requires SDP to be enabled.
C. Targeted LDP requires RSVP to be enabled.
D. Targeted LDP uses unicast hello messages to peer with other devices.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 992
Which two options are valid IPV6 extension header typers? (Choose two)
A. Flow Label
B. Encapsulating security Payload
C. Version
D. Traffic Class
E. Mobility
Answer: BE
NEW QUESTION 993
Your NetFlow collector is not working due to a large amount of traffic entering your network which is destined to a single IP address. Which NetFlow feature allows you to collect the top source hosts for this traffic on the local router?
A. A NetFlow can export flows only to a extermal flow collector
B. show ip cache flow
C. ip accounting
D. ip flow-top-talkers
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 994
For which reason can two OSPF neighbor routers on the same LAN segment be stuck in the two-way state?
A. The two routers have different MTUs on the interface.
B. The two routers are configured with different priorities.
C. The interface priority is set to zero on both routers.
D. Both routers have the same OSPF router ID.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 995
……
NEW QUESTION 997
Which information is contained in an OSPF Type 1 Router LSA?
A. The Autonomous System Border Routers(ASBR) for the OSPF network and the cost of the path to reach each ASBR
B. The router’s interfaces(links) on which OSPF is enabled ,the state and outgoing cost of each link.and the OSPF neighbors on each link
C. The network links to all known OSPF routers and and the cost of each path
D. The Area Border Routers (ABR) for the area and the cost of the path to each ABR
E. The OSPF neighboring routers and the cost of the outgoing link to reach each neighbor
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 998
Which command can you enter to configure a built-in policer with minimum guaranteed bandwidth without starving other classes during periods of congestion?
A. bandwidth remaining percent
B. bandwidth
C. priority percent
D. fair-queue
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 999
Which three session tables does NAT64 maintain?
A. 6rd
B. TCP
C. 484XLAT
D. ICMP Query
E. SIP
F. UDP
Answer: BDF
NEW QUESTION 1000
Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding load balancing are true?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding can load-balance over a maximum of two destinations
B. It combines the source IP address subnet mask to create a hash for each destination
C. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the RIB
D. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the adjacency table
E. It combines the source and destination IP addresses to create a hash fdor each destination
Answer: DE
NEW QUESTION 1001
……
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New 400-101 Exam Questions and Answers Updated Recently (13/July/2016):
NEW QUESTION 1070
A network engineer is extending a LAN segment between two geographically separated data centers. Which enhancement to a spanning-tree design prevents unnecessary traffic from crossing the extended LAN segment?
A. Modify the spanning-tree priorities to dictate the traffic flow.
B. Create a Layer 3 transit VLAN to segment the traffic between the sites.
C. Use VTP pruning on the trunk interfaces.
D. Configure manual trunk pruning between the two locations.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 1071
The OSPF database of a router shows LSA types 1, 2, 3 and 7 only. Which type of area is this router connected to?
A. backbone area
B. totally stubby area
C. stub area
D. not-so-stubby area
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 1072
Which feature can you implement to most effectively protect customer traffic in a rate-limited WAN Ethernet service?
A. HCBWFQ
B. IntServ with RSVP
C. DiffServ
D. The IPsec VTI qos pre-classify command
E. Q-in-Q
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 1073
An engineer has configured a router to use EUI-64, and was asked to document the IPv6 address of the router. The router has the following interface parameters:
mac address C601.420F.0007
subnet 2001:DB8:0:1::/64
A. 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7
B. 2001:DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7
C. 2001:DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7
D. 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 1074
Which command configures port security on a switch to enable permanent MAC address learning on the interface?
A. switchport port-security mac-address-learning enable
B. switchport port-security mac-address timer 0
C. switchport port-security mac-address sticky
D. switchport port-security mac-address maximum 1 sticky
E. switchport port-security mac-address permanent
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 1075
If EIGRP and OSPF are configured within an administrative domain for the same network, which value can you change so that the OSPF becomes the installed routing protocol for all routes?
A. Local preference
B. Metric
C. MED
D. Administrative distance
E. Prefix length
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION 1076
Which three components are in an MPLS header? (choose three)
A. a 4-bit experimental use field
B. a 4-bit label stack entry
C. an 8-bit TTL
D. a 2-bottom of stack
E. a 3-bit experimental use field
F. a 20-bit label
Answer: CEF
NEW QUESTION 1077
What is the main function of VRF-lite?
A. To allow devices to use labels to make Layer 2 Path decisions
B. To segregate multiple routing tables on a single device
C. To connect different autonomous systems together to share routes
D. To route IPv6 traffic across an IPv4 backbone
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 1078
Refer to the exhibit. Which prefixes will have their distance changed?
router eigrp 100
network 10.0.0.0
distance 80 10.1.12.0 0.0.0.255 10
!
access-list 10 permit 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255
A. all prefixes matching access-list 10 learned from peers in the range 10.1.12.0- 10.1.12.255
B. all internal prefixes in the range 10.1.12.0-10.1.12.255 learned from peers matching access-list 10
C. all internal prefixes matching access-list 10 learned from peers in the range 10.1.12.0- 10.1.12.255
D. all prefixes in the range 10.1.12.0-10.1.12.255 learned from peers matching access-list
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 1079
Which two methods do IPsec VTIs used to identify and transmit encrypted traffic through the tunnel? (choose two)
A. static routing
B. dynamic routing
C. object groups
D. ACLs
E. NAT
Answer: AB
NEW QUESTION 1080
When you deploy DMVPN, what is the purpose of the command crypto isakmp key ciscotest address 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 ?
A. It is configured on hub and spoke router to establish peering
B. It is configured on hub to set the pre-shared key for the spoke routers
C. It is configured on the spokes to indicate the hub router
D. It is configured on the Internet PE routers to allow traffic to traverse the ISP core
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 1081
……
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New 400-101 Exam Questions and Answers Updated Recently (22/Sep/2016):
NEW QUESTION 1134
Refer to the exhibit. When packets are transmitted from r1 to r2, where are they encrypted?
Image: examgod.com/plimages/3f8de76f9ae8_A27D/new-400-101-exam-dumps-11341_thumb.jpg
A. on the E0/0 interface on R1
B. on the outside interface
C. in the forwarding engine
D. in the tunnel
E. within the crypto map
F. on the E0/1 interface on R2
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 1135
Refer to the exhibit. Which action can you take to prevent loops and suboptimal routing on this network?
Image: examgod.com/plimages/3f8de76f9ae8_A27D/new-400-101-exam-dumps-11351_thumb.jpg
A. Configure the rfc2328 compatibility command under the Cisco IOS OSPF routing process only
B. Configure the rfc2328 compatibility command under the Cisco IOS OSPF NX-OS routing process only
C. Configure the ref1583 compatibility command under the Cisco NX-OS OSPF routing process only
D. Configure the ref1583 compatibility command under the Cisco IOS OSPF routing process only
E. Configure the rfc2328 compatibility command Cisco IOS and NX-OS OSPF routing processes
F. Configure the rfc2328 compatibility command under the Cisco IOS and NX-OS OSPF routing processes
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 1136
Which three message type are used for prefix delegation in DHCPv6?(Choose three)
A. Solicit
B. Renew
C. Advertise
D. DHCP Discover
E. DHCP Ack
F. DHCP Offer
Answer: ABC
NEW QUESTION 1137
Refer to the exhibit. Which IPv6 migration method is in use on this network?
Image: examgod.com/plimages/3f8de76f9ae8_A27D/new-400-101-exam-dumps-11371_thumb.jpg
A. 6to4 tunnel
B. NAT-PT
C. ISATAP tunnel
D. dual stack
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 1138
Which two OSPF network type require the use of a DR and BDR? (Choose two)
A. non-broadcast networks
B. point-to-point networks
C. point-to-point non-broadcast networks
D. broadcast networks
E. point-to-multipoint networks
Answer: AD
NEW QUESTION 1139
……
NEW QUESTION 1140
Which two statements about SSM are true? (Choose two)
A. It is designed to support many-to-many applications within a PIM domain.
B. It requires IGMPv3 for source filtering.
C. It uses (*, G) multicast routing entries to make forwarding decisions.
D. It can work in conjunction with the ISM service.
E. Its application and protocols use address 233.0.0.0 ?233.255.255.255.
Answer: BD
NEW QUESTION 1141
Which command can you enter to configure a Cisco router running OSPF to propagate the static default route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.31.15.1 within the OSPF process?
A. default-information originate
B. redistribute static subnets
C. redistribute static metric 1 subnets
D. redistribute static
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 1142
Refer to the exhibit. If this network is in the process of being migrated from EIGRP to OSPF, and all routers are now running both protocols, which action must you perform to complete the migration?
Image: examgod.com/plimages/3f8de76f9ae8_A27D/new-400-101-exam-dumps-11421_thumb.jpg
A. Change the EIGRP administrative distance to 95
B. Change the OSPF administrative distance to 95
C. Change the OSPF administrative distance to 115
D. Change the EIGRP administrative distance to 115
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 1143
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect on the network when you apply these configuration to R1 and R2?
Image: examgod.com/plimages/3f8de76f9ae8_A27D/new-400-101-exam-dumps-11431_thumb.jpg
A. Asymmetric routing occurs because the bandwidth and delay K value settings are mismatched.
B. The interface bandwidth and delay settings adjust automatically to match the new metric settings.
C. The neighbor adjacency between R1 and R2 temporarily resets and then reestablishes itself.
D. R1 and R2 fail to form a neighbor adjacency.
Answer: AD
NEW QUESTION 1144
Which statement is true about IGMP?
A. Multicast source send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then generates a PIM join message that is then sent to the RP.
B. Multicast receivers send IGMP message to signal their interest traffic multicast groups.
C. IGMP message are encapsulated in PIM register message and send to the RP.
D. Multicast receivers send IGMP message to their first-hop router, which then forwards the IGMP message to the RP.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 1145
……
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New 400-101 Exam Questions and Answers Updated Recently (14/Oct/2016):
NEW QUESTION 1203
What is the source MAC address of a BPDU frame that is sent out of a port?
A. A the lowest MAC address on the switch
B. the higest MAC address on the switch
C. the MAC address of the individual port that is sending the BPDU
D. the same as the MAC address in the brigdge ID
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 1204
Which type of ACL can be applied only to Layer 2 pods?
A. port ACLs
B. reflexive ACLs
C. reflexive ACLs
D. dynamic ACLs
E. VLAN ACLs
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 1205
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about this topology are true? (Choose two)
Image URL: examgod.com/plimages/ba3a26a3b5fe_E707/new-400-101-dumps-12051_thumb.jpg
A. Destination 192.168.23.0/24 is unable to use interface Fa0/1 as the LFA
B. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 is the primary path to destination 192 168.23.0/24
C. The FastEthernet 0/0 and FastEthernet 0/1 interfaces are used as LFA for destination 192.168.23.0/24
D. Only interface FastEthernet 0/1 are used as the LFA for destination 19216823.0/24
E. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is the primary path to destination 192.168.23.0/24
F. Only FastEthernet 0/0 is used as the LFA to destination 192.168.23.0/24
Answer: AE
NEW QUESTION 1206
Which three options are the main security features in SNMPv3? (Choose three)
A. authentication
B. MIB persistence
C. message integrity
D. authorization
E. encryption
F. accounting
Answer: ACE
NEW QUESTION 1207
Which two are best practices when configuring VLAN and switch port ? (Choose two)
A. Assign an unused VLAN to all unsed ports.
B. Always use MST to ensure a loop-free topology.
C. Use a dedicated native VLAN ID for all trunk ports.
D. Use VLAN1 as the network management VLAN.
E. Set the default port status to Enable.
Answer: AC
NEW QUESTION 1208
Which command can you enter to disable logging for terminal lines?
A. no logging trop
B. no logging monitor
C. no logging buffer
D. no logging console
E. no logging count
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 1209
……
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